Here's a humorous defense for the question (in the context of transubstantiation): "if it's literally Jesus' body, then how is it that billions of Catholics haven't eaten all of him yet?"

Evaluating this question involves non-Euclidean math. Here's the basic gist: the Catholic claim is that the Eucharist becomes a literal re-presentation of the actual flesh of Jesus during his ~6 hours on the cross. A Catholic argued that this is literally time travel. If the B-theory of time is true, then there is a 4D block of space-time that is 6 hours long, and contains the flesh of Jesus being crucified.

Let Vj(t) be the 3D volume of Jesus’ flesh for any given time-slice t.

Further assume that this volume is approximately constant such that for:

t = t0 to (t0 + 6 hours) → Vj(t) ≈ Vj.

In theory, the 6 hour space-time block can be sliced into an infinite number of infinitesimally small time slices. However, for any given time slice, no matter how small, Vj is non-zero. What happens then when we sum these slices?

Vj(t) + Vj(t+δt) → ∞ for lim(δt) → 0

Here’s an analogous case simplified to 2D: suppose we have a solid black square of 1" x 1". How long would it be if we stretched it out to a line of infinitesimal width while maintaining the area as constant? We start by reducing the width to half then iterate:

w = 0.5, h = 2.0

w = 0.25, h = 4.0

w = 0.125, h = 8.0

...

w → 0 , h → ∞

The Eucharist is the Dirac delta function.

Q.E.D.

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